Edward Hall´s Article:
1) Would be it be too optimistic to claim that only certain things can "make sense" in particular contexts, i.e. that there is some kind of a meta-normativity implicit in Williams´account? (cf. p.469; 476 last paragraph;p.478 last paragpraph, first sentence)
2) Could one conceive of Williams´framework being the end game with regard to realist political thought in it by necessity having to remain at least to a certain degree indeterminate?
3) What does it mean for slavery to be imperfectly legitimated compared to coercive subjection ?