1) It is clear that the Weberian definition is false, not only unwarranted, at least with respect to the Soviet regimes in the last century. Nonetheless, where do you think its true appeal lies or do you ,for that matter, find it prima facie appealing at all ?
2) What are ultimately the outlines of the relation between normative philosophy and social science that seem to be alluded to ? Is it possible that they do after all have something to do with the Weberian definition (even if it be under highly specific conditions) ?